Back to basics
With extra emphasis on the "back". I know, I've been a bad blogger (or a good non-blogger), but it's largely due to having been away at the Mathematical Olympiad where New Zealand did just fine (at least by our standards). But (perhaps) more on that another time.
Let's return to the meat and potatoes of this hear blog -- a painstakingly pedantic deconstruction of a routine poker hand. I know, I know, you can't wait.
The scene is $25 PLHE on Stars. I've found the game selection here remarkably good recently, and the bankroll has been thanking me for it. However, last night I was having one of those sessions where nothing seems to quite work out. It culminated in the following hand:
On the button, with more than a full stack, I was dealt 4♣3♣. UTG+1 who was new to the table, but already showing loose tendencies, and playing a shortish stack limped in. I decided to limp along and see a flop, and the blinds joined us.
The flop was Q♣T♣6♣, giving me a, let's say, rather vulnerable, flopped flush. The pot is $1 at this point, and loose limper led for $0.50.
First occasion for a bit of analysis. I think it's actually unlikely that he's also flopped a flush (people love to slowplay in that situation). He may just be randomly c-betting, or (more likely) has some piece of the flop, with or without a club behind it. It's clear that I should raise to protect my hand (and for value). However, I made a rather elementary error here and just min-raised. This cleared out the blinds, but getting 4:1 on his call it was clearly correct for loose limper to stay in the hand, and so he did.
Realizing my mistake, I expected to be punished by a fourth club on the turn. But no, it was the 2♦, a complete brick if I ever saw one. This time limper checked to me, and I bet $2 into the $3 pot. He called.
Now I'm moderately certain that he doesn't have a club flush to beat me. But what does he have? Set of 6's? Two pair? AT with the club ace? What a puzzle. We await the river with some anticipation.
It's the 6♥. Our dear opponent instantly pushes his remaining stack into the pot, almost exactly a pot sized bet. Oh my fur and whiskers ...
Is this a premeditated move, pushing the busted club draw on any sort of scare card? Did he just make quads?
Despite the general passivity of players at this level, and because I was on "depression tilt", I called, and was not entirely surprised when he turned over T♠6♠, having hit his four outer on the river.
Now here is a question: suppose, that along with my bet on the turn, I had exposed my cards and promised to call a push by him on the river regardless of what card hit (that is, I had guaranteed maximum implied odds). What odds would he be getting on his turn call? Effectively, 6:1. So, it was still a mistake!
Anyone know where I can spend some Sklansky bucks?
Let's return to the meat and potatoes of this hear blog -- a painstakingly pedantic deconstruction of a routine poker hand. I know, I know, you can't wait.
The scene is $25 PLHE on Stars. I've found the game selection here remarkably good recently, and the bankroll has been thanking me for it. However, last night I was having one of those sessions where nothing seems to quite work out. It culminated in the following hand:
On the button, with more than a full stack, I was dealt 4♣3♣. UTG+1 who was new to the table, but already showing loose tendencies, and playing a shortish stack limped in. I decided to limp along and see a flop, and the blinds joined us.
The flop was Q♣T♣6♣, giving me a, let's say, rather vulnerable, flopped flush. The pot is $1 at this point, and loose limper led for $0.50.
First occasion for a bit of analysis. I think it's actually unlikely that he's also flopped a flush (people love to slowplay in that situation). He may just be randomly c-betting, or (more likely) has some piece of the flop, with or without a club behind it. It's clear that I should raise to protect my hand (and for value). However, I made a rather elementary error here and just min-raised. This cleared out the blinds, but getting 4:1 on his call it was clearly correct for loose limper to stay in the hand, and so he did.
Realizing my mistake, I expected to be punished by a fourth club on the turn. But no, it was the 2♦, a complete brick if I ever saw one. This time limper checked to me, and I bet $2 into the $3 pot. He called.
Now I'm moderately certain that he doesn't have a club flush to beat me. But what does he have? Set of 6's? Two pair? AT with the club ace? What a puzzle. We await the river with some anticipation.
It's the 6♥. Our dear opponent instantly pushes his remaining stack into the pot, almost exactly a pot sized bet. Oh my fur and whiskers ...
Is this a premeditated move, pushing the busted club draw on any sort of scare card? Did he just make quads?
Despite the general passivity of players at this level, and because I was on "depression tilt", I called, and was not entirely surprised when he turned over T♠6♠, having hit his four outer on the river.
Now here is a question: suppose, that along with my bet on the turn, I had exposed my cards and promised to call a push by him on the river regardless of what card hit (that is, I had guaranteed maximum implied odds). What odds would he be getting on his turn call? Effectively, 6:1. So, it was still a mistake!
Anyone know where I can spend some Sklansky bucks?
1 Comments:
"Anyone know where I can spend some Sklansky bucks?" ... Hilarious!
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